(210 ILCS 47/Art. II heading)

(210 ILCS 47/Art. II Pt. 1 heading)

(210 ILCS 47/2-101) Sec. 2-101. Constitutional and legal rights. No resident shall be deprived of any rights, benefits, or privileges guaranteed by law, the Constitution of the State of Illinois, or the Constitution of the United States solely on account of his or her status as a resident of a facility. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-101.1) Sec. 2-101.1. Spousal impoverishment. All new residents and their spouses shall be informed on admittance of their spousal impoverishment rights as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as now or hereafter amended and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360). (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-102) Sec. 2-102. Financial affairs. A resident shall be permitted to manage his or her own financial affairs unless he or she or his or her guardian or if the resident is a minor, his or her parent, authorizes the administrator of the facility in writing to manage such resident's financial affairs under Section 2-201 of this Act. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-103) Sec. 2-103. Personal property. A resident shall be permitted to retain and use or wear his or her personal property in his or her immediate living quarters, unless deemed medically inappropriate by a physician and so documented in the resident's clinical record. If clothing is provided to the resident by the facility, it shall be of a proper fit. The facility shall provide adequate storage space for the personal property of the resident. The facility shall provide a means of safeguarding small items of value for its residents in their rooms or in any other part of the facility so long as the residents have daily access to such valuables. The facility shall make reasonable efforts to prevent loss and theft of residents' property. Those efforts shall be appropriate to the particular facility and may include, but are not limited to, staff training and monitoring, labeling property, and frequent property inventories. The facility shall develop procedures for investigating complaints concerning theft of residents' property and shall promptly investigate all such complaints. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-104) Sec. 2-104. Medical treatment; records. (a) A resident shall be permitted to retain the services of his or her own personal physician at his or her own expense or under an individual or group plan of health insurance, or under any public or private assistance program providing such coverage. However, the facility is not liable for the negligence of any such personal physician. Every resident shall be permitted to obtain from his or her own physician or the physician attached to the facility complete and current information concerning his or her medical diagnosis, treatment and prognosis in terms and language the resident can reasonably be expected to understand. Every resident shall be permitted to participate in the planning of his or her total care and medical treatment to the extent that his or her condition permits. No resident shall be subjected to experimental research or treatment without first obtaining his or her informed, written consent. The conduct of any experimental research or treatment shall be authorized and monitored by an institutional review board appointed by the Director. The membership, operating procedures and review criteria for the institutional review board shall be prescribed under rules and regulations of the Department and shall comply with the requirements for institutional review boards established by the federal Food and Drug Administration. No person who has received compensation in the prior 3 years from an entity that manufactures, distributes, or sells pharmaceuticals, biologics, or medical devices may serve on the institutional review board.The institutional review board may approve only research or treatment that meets the standards of the federal Food and Drug Administration with respect to (i) the protection of human subjects and (ii) financial disclosure by clinical investigators. The Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman and the State Protection and Advocacy organization shall be given an opportunity to comment on any request for approval before the board makes a decision. Those entities shall not be provided information that would allow a potential human subject to be individually identified, unless the board asks the Ombudsman for help in securing information from or about the resident. The board shall require frequent reporting of the progress of the approved research or treatment and its impact on residents, including immediate reporting of any adverse impact to the resident, the resident's representative, the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, and the State Protection and Advocacy organization. The board may not approve any retrospective study of the records of any resident about the safety or efficacy of any care or treatment if the resident was under the care of the proposed researcher or a business associate when the care or treatment was given, unless the study is under the control of a researcher without any business relationship to any person or entity who could benefit from the findings of the study.No facility shall permit experimental research or treatment to be conducted on a resident or give access to any person or person's records for a retrospective study about the safety or efficacy of any care or treatment without the prior written approval of the institutional review board. No administrator, or person licensed by the State to provide medical care or treatment to any person may assist or participate in any experimental research on or treatment of a resident, including a retrospective study, that does not have the prior written approval of the board. Such conduct shall be grounds for professional discipline by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.The institutional review board may exempt from ongoing review research or treatment initiated on a resident before the individual's admission to a facility and for which the board determines there is adequate ongoing oversight by another institutional review board. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a facility, any facility employee, or any other person from assisting or participating in any experimental research on or treatment of a resident if the research or treatment began before the person's admission to a facility, until the board has reviewed the research or treatment and decided to grant or deny approval or to exempt the research or treatment from ongoing review. (b) All medical treatment and procedures shall be administered as ordered by a physician. All new physician orders shall be reviewed by the facility's director of nursing or charge nurse designee within 24 hours after such orders have been issued to assure facility compliance with such orders. According to rules adopted by the Department, every woman resident of child bearing age shall receive routine obstetrical and gynecological evaluations as well as necessary prenatal care.(c) Every resident shall be permitted to refuse medical treatment and to know the consequences of such action, unless such refusal would be harmful to the health and safety of others and such harm is documented by a physician in the resident's clinical record. The resident's refusal shall free the facility from the obligation to provide the treatment. (d) Every resident, resident's guardian, or parent if the resident is a minor shall be permitted to inspect and copy all his or her clinical and other records concerning his or her care and maintenance kept by the facility or by his or her physician. The facility may charge a reasonable fee for duplication of a record. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-104.1) Sec. 2-104.1. Transfer of facility ownership after license suspension or revocation. Whenever ownership of a private facility is transferred to another private owner following a final order for a suspension or revocation of the facility's license, the new owner, if the Department so determines, shall thoroughly evaluate the condition and needs of each resident as if each resident were being newly admitted to the facility. The evaluation shall include a review of the medical record and the conduct of a physical examination of each resident which shall be performed within 30 days after the transfer of ownership. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-104.2) Sec. 2-104.2. Do Not Resuscitate Orders. Every facility licensed under this Act shall establish a policy for the implementation of physician orders limiting resuscitation such as those commonly referred to as "Do Not Resuscitate" orders. This policy may only prescribe the format, method of documentation and duration of any physician orders limiting resuscitation. Any orders under this policy shall be honored by the facility. The Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form or a copy of that form or a previous version of the uniform form shall be honored by the facility. (Source: P.A. 98-1110, eff. 8-26-14; 99-319, eff. 1-1-16.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-105) Sec. 2-105. Privacy. A resident shall be permitted respect and privacy in his or her medical and personal care program. Every resident's case discussion, consultation, examination and treatment shall be confidential and shall be conducted discreetly, and those persons not directly involved in the resident's care must have the resident's permission to be present. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-106) Sec. 2-106. Restraints and confinements.(a) For purposes of this Act:(i) A physical restraint is any manual method or

physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to a resident's body that the resident cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body. Devices used for positioning, including but not limited to bed rails, gait belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints for purposes of this Section.

(ii) A chemical restraint is any drug used for

discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms. The Department shall by rule, designate certain devices as restraints, including at least all those devices which have been determined to be restraints by the United States Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act.

(b) Neither restraints nor confinements shall be employed for the purpose of punishment or for the convenience of any facility personnel. No restraints or confinements shall be employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the need for such restraints or confinements in the resident's clinical record. Each facility licensed under this Act must have a written policy to address the use of restraints and seclusion. The Department shall establish by rule the provisions that the policy must include, which, to the extent practicable, should be consistent with the requirements for participation in the federal Medicare program. Each policy shall include periodic review of the use of restraints.(c) A restraint may be used only with the informed consent of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized representative. A restraint may be used only for specific periods, if it is the least restrictive means necessary to attain and maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well being, including brief periods of time to provide necessary life saving treatment. A restraint may be used only after consultation with appropriate health professionals, such as occupational or physical therapists, and a trial of less restrictive measures has led to the determination that the use of less restrictive measures would not attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well being. However, if the resident needs emergency care, restraints may be used for brief periods to permit medical treatment to proceed unless the facility has notice that the resident has previously made a valid refusal of the treatment in question.(d) A restraint may be applied only by a person trained in the application of the particular type of restraint.(e) Whenever a period of use of a restraint is initiated, the resident shall be advised of his or her right to have a person or organization of his or her choosing, including the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, notified of the use of the restraint. A recipient who is under guardianship may request that a person or organization of his or her choosing be notified of the restraint, whether or not the guardian approves the notice. If the resident so chooses, the facility shall make the notification within 24 hours, including any information about the period of time that the restraint is to be used. Whenever the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission is notified that a resident has been restrained, it shall contact the resident to determine the circumstances of the restraint and whether further action is warranted.(f) Whenever a restraint is used on a resident whose primary mode of communication is sign language, the resident shall be permitted to have his or her hands free from restraint for brief periods each hour, except when this freedom may result in physical harm to the resident or others.(g) The requirements of this Section are intended to control in any conflict with the requirements of Sections 1-126 and 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-106.1) Sec. 2-106.1. Drug treatment. (a) A resident shall not be given unnecessary drugs. An unnecessary drug is any drug used in an excessive dose, including in duplicative therapy; for excessive duration; without adequate monitoring; without adequate indications for its use; or in the presence of adverse consequences that indicate the drugs should be reduced or discontinued. The Department shall adopt, by rule, the standards for unnecessary drugs contained in interpretive guidelines issued by the United States Department of Health and Human Services for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act.(b) Psychotropic medication shall not be administered without the informed consent of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized representative. "Psychotropic medication" means medication that is used for or listed as used for antipsychotic, antidepressant, antimanic, or antianxiety behavior modification or behavior management purposes in the latest editions of the AMA Drug Evaluations or the Physician's Desk Reference. The Department shall adopt, by rule, a protocol specifying how informed consent for psychotropic medication may be obtained or refused. The protocol shall require, at a minimum, a discussion between (1) the resident or the resident's authorized representative and (2) the resident's physician, a registered pharmacist who is not a dispensing pharmacist for the facility where the resident lives, or a licensed nurse about the possible risks and benefits of a recommended medication and the use of standardized consent forms designated by the Department. Each form developed by the Department (i) shall be written in plain language, (ii) shall be able to be downloaded from the Department's official website, (iii) shall include information specific to the psychotropic medication for which consent is being sought, and (iv) shall be used for every resident for whom psychotropic drugs are prescribed. In addition to creating those forms, the Department shall approve the use of any other informed consent forms that meet criteria developed by the Department.In addition to any other requirement prescribed by law, a facility that is found to have violated this subsection or the federal certification requirement that informed consent be obtained before administering a psychotropic medication shall for 3 years after the notice of violation be required to (A) obtain the signatures of 2 licensed health care professionals on every form purporting to give informed consent for the administration of a psychotropic medication, certifying the personal knowledge of each health care professional that the consent was obtained in compliance with the requirements of this subsection or (B) videotape or make a digital video record of the procedures followed by the facility to comply with the requirements of this subsection. (c) The requirements of this Section are intended to control in a conflict with the requirements of Sections 2-102 and 2-107.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code with respect to the administration of psychotropic medication. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-106a) Sec. 2-106a. Resident identification wristlet. No identification wristlets shall be employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the need for such mandatory identification in the resident's clinical record. When identification bracelets are required, they must identify the resident's name, and the name and address of the facility issuing the identification wristlet. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-107) Sec. 2-107. Abuse or neglect; duty to report. An owner, licensee, administrator, employee or agent of a facility shall not abuse or neglect a resident. It is the duty of any facility employee or agent who becomes aware of such abuse or neglect to report it as provided in the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-108) Sec. 2-108. Communications; visits; married residents. Every resident shall be permitted unimpeded, private and uncensored communication of his or her choice by mail, public telephone or visitation.(a) The administrator shall ensure that correspondence is conveniently received and mailed, and that telephones are reasonably accessible.(b) The administrator shall ensure that residents may have private visits at any reasonable hour unless such visits are not medically advisable for the resident as documented in the resident's clinical record by the resident's physician.(c) The administrator shall ensure that space for visits is available and that facility personnel knock, except in an emergency, before entering any resident's room.(d) Unimpeded, private and uncensored communication by mail, public telephone and visitation may be reasonably restricted by a physician only in order to protect the resident or others from harm, harassment or intimidation, provided that the reason for any such restriction is placed in the resident's clinical record by the physician and that notice of such restriction shall be given to all residents upon admission. However, all letters addressed by a resident to the Governor, members of the General Assembly, Attorney General, judges, state's attorneys, officers of the Department, or licensed attorneys at law shall be forwarded at once to the persons to whom they are addressed without examination by facility personnel. Letters in reply from the officials and attorneys mentioned above shall be delivered to the recipient without examination by facility personnel.(e) The administrator shall ensure that married residents residing in the same facility be allowed to reside in the same room within the facility unless there is no room available in the facility or it is deemed medically inadvisable by the residents' attending physician and so documented in the residents' medical records. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-109) Sec. 2-109. Religion. A resident shall be permitted the free exercise of religion. Upon a resident's request, and if necessary at the resident's expense, the administrator shall make arrangements for a resident's attendance at religious services of the resident's choice. However, no religious beliefs or practices, or attendance at religious services, may be imposed upon any resident. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-110) Sec. 2-110. Access to residents. (a) Any employee or agent of a public agency, any representative of a community legal services program or any other member of the general public shall be permitted access at reasonable hours to any individual resident of any facility, but only if there is neither a commercial purpose nor effect to such access and if the purpose is to do any of the following:(1) Visit, talk with and make personal, social and

legal services available to all residents;

(2) Inform residents of their rights and entitlements

and their corresponding obligations, under federal and State laws, by means of educational materials and discussions in groups and with individual residents;

(3) Assist residents in asserting their legal rights

regarding claims for public assistance, medical assistance and social security benefits, as well as in all other matters in which residents are aggrieved. Assistance may include counseling and litigation; or

(4) Engage in other methods of asserting, advising

and representing residents so as to extend to them full enjoyment of their rights.

(a-5) If a resident of a licensed facility is an identified offender, any federal, State, or local law enforcement officer or county probation officer shall be permitted reasonable access to the individual resident to verify compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act or to verify compliance with applicable terms of probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.(b) All persons entering a facility under this Section shall promptly notify appropriate facility personnel of their presence. They shall, upon request, produce identification to establish their identity. No such person shall enter the immediate living area of any resident without first identifying himself or herself and then receiving permission from the resident to enter. The rights of other residents present in the room shall be respected. A resident may terminate at any time a visit by a person having access to the resident's living area under this Section.(c) This Section shall not limit the power of the Department or other public agency otherwise permitted or required by law to enter and inspect a facility.(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Section, the administrator of a facility may refuse access to the facility to any person if the presence of that person in the facility would be injurious to the health and safety of a resident or would threaten the security of the property of a resident or the facility, or if the person seeks access to the facility for commercial purposes. Any person refused access to a facility may within 10 days request a hearing under Section 3-703. In that proceeding, the burden of proof as to the right of the facility to refuse access under this Section shall be on the facility. (Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-111) Sec. 2-111. Discharge. A resident may be discharged from a facility after he or she gives the administrator, a physician, or a nurse of the facility written notice of his or her desire to be discharged. If a guardian has been appointed for a resident or if the resident is a minor, the resident shall be discharged upon written consent of his or her guardian or if the resident is a minor, his or her parent unless there is a court order to the contrary. In such cases, upon the resident's discharge, the facility is relieved from any responsibility for the resident's care, safety or well being. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-112) Sec. 2-112. Grievances. A resident shall be permitted to present grievances on behalf of himself or herself or others to the administrator, the DD Facility Advisory Board established under Section 2-204 of this Act, the residents' advisory council, State governmental agencies or other persons without threat of discharge or reprisal in any form or manner whatsoever. The administrator shall provide all residents or their representatives with the name, address, and telephone number of the appropriate State governmental office where complaints may be lodged. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1146, eff. 7-21-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-113) Sec. 2-113. Labor. A resident may refuse to perform labor for a facility. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-114) Sec. 2-114. Unlawful discrimination. No resident shall be subjected to unlawful discrimination as defined in Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act by any owner, licensee, administrator, employee, or agent of a facility. Unlawful discrimination does not include an action by any owner, licensee, administrator, employee, or agent of a facility that is required by this Act or rules adopted under this Act. (Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-115) Sec. 2-115. Right to notification of violations. Residents and their guardians or other resident representatives, if any, shall be notified of any violation of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pursuant to Section 2-217 of this Act, or of violations of the requirements of Titles XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act or rules promulgated thereunder, with respect to the health, safety, or welfare of the resident. (Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-116) Sec. 2-116. Authorized electronic monitoring of a resident's room. A resident shall be permitted to conduct authorized electronic monitoring of the resident's room through the use of electronic monitoring devices placed in the room pursuant to the Authorized Electronic Monitoring in Long-Term Care Facilities Act. (Source: P.A. 99-430, eff. 1-1-16.)

(210 ILCS 47/Art. II Pt. 2 heading)

(210 ILCS 47/2-201) Sec. 2-201. Residents' funds. To protect the residents' funds, the facility: (1) Shall at the time of admission provide, in order of priority, each resident, or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, with a written statement explaining to the resident and to the resident's spouse (a) their spousal impoverishment rights, as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360), and (b) the resident's rights regarding personal funds and listing the services for which the resident will be charged. The facility shall obtain a signed acknowledgment from each resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, that such person has received the statement.(2) May accept funds from a resident for safekeeping and managing, if it receives written authorization from, in order of priority, the resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any; such authorization shall be attested to by a witness who has no pecuniary interest in the facility or its operations, and who is not connected in any way to facility personnel or the administrator in any manner whatsoever.(3) Shall maintain and allow, in order of priority, each resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, access to a written record of all financial arrangements and transactions involving the individual resident's funds.(4) Shall provide, in order of priority, each resident, or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, with a written itemized statement at least quarterly, of all financial transactions involving the resident's funds.(5) Shall purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Departments of Public Health and Financial and Professional Regulation that all residents' personal funds deposited with the facility are secure against loss, theft, and insolvency.(6) Shall keep any funds received from a resident for safekeeping in an account separate from the facility's funds, and shall at no time withdraw any part or all of such funds for any purpose other than to return the funds to the resident upon the request of the resident or any other person entitled to make such request, to pay the resident his or her allowance, or to make any other payment authorized by the resident or any other person entitled to make such authorization.(7) Shall deposit any funds received from a resident in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account insured by agencies of, or corporations chartered by, the State or federal government. The account shall be in a form which clearly indicates that the facility has only a fiduciary interest in the funds and any interest from the account shall accrue to the resident. The facility may keep up to $100 of a resident's money in a non-interest-bearing account or petty cash fund, to be readily available for the resident's current expenditures.(8) Shall return to the resident, or the person who executed the written authorization required in subsection (2) of this Section, upon written request, all or any part of the resident's funds given the facility for safekeeping, including the interest accrued from deposits.(9) Shall (a) place any monthly allowance to which a resident is entitled in that resident's personal account, or give it to the resident, unless the facility has written authorization from the resident or the resident's guardian or if the resident is a minor, his parent, to handle it differently, (b) take all steps necessary to ensure that a personal needs allowance that is placed in a resident's personal account is used exclusively by the resident or for the benefit of the resident, and (c) where such funds are withdrawn from the resident's personal account by any person other than the resident, require such person to whom funds constituting any part of a resident's personal needs allowance are released, to execute an affidavit that such funds shall be used exclusively for the benefit of the resident.(10) Unless otherwise provided by State law, upon the death of a resident, shall provide the executor or administrator of the resident's estate with a complete accounting of all the resident's personal property, including any funds of the resident being held by the facility.(11) If an adult resident is incapable of managing his or her funds and does not have a resident's representative, guardian, or an immediate family member, shall notify the Office of the State Guardian of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission.(12) If the facility is sold, shall provide the buyer with a written verification by a public accountant of all residents' monies and properties being transferred, and obtain a signed receipt from the new owner. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-201.5) Sec. 2-201.5. Screening prior to admission. (a) All persons age 18 or older seeking admission to a facility must be screened to determine the need for facility services prior to being admitted, regardless of income, assets, or funding source. In addition, any person who seeks to become eligible for medical assistance from the Medical Assistance Program under the Illinois Public Aid Code to pay for services while residing in a facility must be screened prior to receiving those benefits. Screening for facility services shall be administered through procedures established by administrative rule. Screening may be done by agencies other than the Department as established by administrative rule.(a-1) Any screening shall also include an evaluation of whether there are residential supports and services or an array of community services that would enable the person to live in the community. The person shall be told about the existence of any such services that would enable the person to live safely and humanely in the least restrictive environment, that is appropriate, that the individual or guardian chooses, and the person shall be given the assistance necessary to avail himself or herself of any available services. (b) In addition to the screening required by subsection (a), a facility shall, within 24 hours after admission, request a criminal history background check pursuant to the Uniform Conviction Information Act for all persons age 18 or older seeking admission to the facility. Background checks conducted pursuant to this Section shall be based on the resident's name, date of birth, and other identifiers as required by the Department of State Police. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the facility shall initiate a fingerprint-based check, unless the fingerprint-based check is waived by the Director of Public Health based on verification by the facility that the resident is completely immobile or that the resident meets other criteria related to the resident's health or lack of potential risk which may be established by Departmental rule. A waiver issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid only while the resident is immobile or while the criteria supporting the waiver exist. The facility shall provide for or arrange for any required fingerprint-based checks. If a fingerprint-based check is required, the facility shall arrange for it to be conducted in a manner that is respectful of the resident's dignity and that minimizes any emotional or physical hardship to the resident.(c) If the results of a resident's criminal history background check reveal that the resident is an identified offender as defined in Section 1-114.01 of this Act, the facility shall do the following:(1) Immediately notify the Department of State

Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, in collaboration with the Department of Public Health, that the resident is an identified offender.

(2) Within 72 hours, arrange for a fingerprint-based

criminal history record inquiry to be requested on the identified offender resident. The inquiry shall be based on the subject's name, sex, race, date of birth, fingerprint images, and other identifiers required by the Department of State Police. The inquiry shall be processed through the files of the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to locate any criminal history record information that may exist regarding the subject. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish to the Department of State Police, pursuant to an inquiry under this paragraph (2), any criminal history record information contained in its files. The facility shall comply with all applicable provisions contained in the Uniform Conviction Information Act. All name-based and fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiries shall be submitted to the Department of State Police electronically in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police may charge the facility a fee for processing name-based and fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiries. The fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The fee shall not exceed the actual cost of processing the inquiry.

(d) The Department shall develop and maintain a de-identified database of residents who have injured facility staff, facility visitors, or other residents, and the attendant circumstances, solely for the purposes of evaluating and improving resident pre-screening and assessment procedures (including the Criminal History Report prepared under Section 2-201.6 of this Act) and the adequacy of Department requirements concerning the provision of care and services to residents. A resident shall not be listed in the database until a Department survey confirms the accuracy of the listing. The names of persons listed in the database and information that would allow them to be individually identified shall not be made public. Neither the Department nor any other agency of State government may use information in the database to take any action against any individual, licensee, or other entity unless the Department or agency receives the information independent of this subsection (d). All information collected, maintained, or developed under the authority of this subsection (d) for the purposes of the database maintained under this subsection (d) shall be treated in the same manner as information that is subject to Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-201.6) Sec. 2-201.6. Criminal History Report.(a) The Department of State Police shall prepare a Criminal History Report when it receives information, through the criminal history background check required pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 2-201.5 or through any other means, that a resident of a facility is an identified offender.(b) The Department of State Police shall complete the Criminal History Report within 10 business days after receiving any information described under subsection (a) of this Act that a resident is an identified offender.(c) The Criminal History Report shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Copies of the identified offender's parole,

mandatory supervised release, or probation orders.

(2) An interview with the identified offender.(3) A detailed summary of the entire criminal history

of the offender, including arrests, convictions, and the date of the identified offender's last conviction relative to the date of admission to a long-term care facility.

(4) If the identified offender is a convicted or

registered sex offender, then a review of any and all sex offender evaluations conducted on that offender. If there is no sex offender evaluation available, then the Department of State Police shall arrange, through the Department of Public Health, for a sex offender evaluation to be conducted on the identified offender. If the convicted or registered sex offender is under supervision by the Illinois Department of Corrections or a county probation department, then the sex offender evaluation shall be arranged by and at the expense of the supervising agency. All evaluations conducted on convicted or registered sex offenders under this Act shall be conducted by sex offender evaluators approved by the Sex Offender Management Board.

(d) The Department of State Police shall provide the Criminal History Report to a licensed forensic psychologist. The licensed forensic psychologist shall prepare an Identified Offender Report and Recommendation after (i) consideration of the Criminal History Report, (ii) consultation with the facility administrator or the facility medical director, or both, regarding the mental and physical condition of the identified offender, and (iii) reviewing the facility's file on the identified offender, including all incident reports, all information regarding medication and medication compliance, and all information regarding previous discharges or transfers from other facilities. The Identified Offender Report and Recommendation shall detail whether and to what extent the identified offender's criminal history necessitates the implementation of security measures within the facility. If the identified offender is a convicted or registered sex offender, or if the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation reveals that the identified offender poses a significant risk of harm to others within the facility, then the offender shall be required to have his or her own room within the facility.(e) The licensed forensic psychologist shall complete the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation within 14 business days after receiving the Criminal History Report and shall promptly provide the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation to the Department of State Police, which shall provide the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation to the following:(1) The facility within which the identified offender

resides.

(2) The Chief of Police of the municipality in which

the facility is located.

(3) The State of Illinois Long Term Care Ombudsman.(4) The Department of Public Health.(f) The Department of Public Health shall keep a continuing record of all residents determined to be identified offenders as defined in Section 1-114.01 and shall report the number of identified offender residents annually to the General Assembly.(g) The facility shall incorporate the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation into the identified offender's individual program plan created pursuant to 42 CFR 483.440(c).(h) If, based on the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation, a facility determines that it cannot manage the identified offender resident safely within the facility, then it shall commence involuntary transfer or discharge proceedings pursuant to Section 3-402.(i) Except for willful and wanton misconduct, any person authorized to participate in the development of a Criminal History Report or Identified Offender Report and Recommendation is immune from criminal or civil liability for any acts or omissions as the result of his or her good faith effort to comply with this Section. (Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-202) Sec. 2-202. Contract required. (a) Before a person is admitted to a facility, or at the expiration of the period of previous contract, or when the source of payment for the resident's care changes from private to public funds or from public to private funds, a written contract shall be executed between a licensee and the following in order of priority:(1) the person, or if the person is a minor, his

parent or guardian; or

(2) the person's guardian, if any, or agent, if any,

as defined in Section 2-3 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act; or

(3) a member of the person's immediate family. An adult person shall be presumed to have the capacity to contract for admission to a long term care facility unless he or she has been adjudicated a "person with a disability" within the meaning of Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, or unless a petition for such an adjudication is pending in a circuit court of Illinois. If there is no guardian, agent or member of the person's immediate family available, able or willing to execute the contract required by this Section and a physician determines that a person is so disabled as to be unable to consent to placement in a facility, or if a person has already been found to be a "person with a disability", but no order has been entered allowing residential placement of the person, that person may be admitted to a facility before the execution of a contract required by this Section; provided that a petition for guardianship or for modification of guardianship is filed within 15 days of the person's admission to a facility, and provided further that such a contract is executed within 10 days of the disposition of the petition. No adult shall be admitted to a facility if he or she objects, orally or in writing, to such admission, except as otherwise provided in Chapters III and IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or Section 11a-14.1 of the Probate Act of 1975. Before a licensee enters a contract under this Section, it shall provide the prospective resident and his or her guardian, if any, with written notice of the licensee's policy regarding discharge of a resident whose private funds for payment of care are exhausted.(b) A resident shall not be discharged or transferred at the expiration of the term of a contract, except as provided in Sections 3-401 through 3-423.(c) At the time of the resident's admission to the facility, a copy of the contract shall be given to the resident, his or her guardian, if any, and any other person who executed the contract.(d) A copy of the contract for a resident who is supported by nonpublic funds other than the resident's own funds shall be made available to the person providing the funds for the resident's support.(e) The original or a copy of the contract shall be maintained in the facility and be made available upon request to representatives of the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.(f) The contract shall be written in clear and unambiguous language and shall be printed in not less than 12-point type. The general form of the contract shall be prescribed by the Department.(g) The contract shall specify:(1) the term of the contract;(2) the services to be provided under the contract

and the charges for the services;

(3) the services that may be provided to supplement

the contract and the charges for the services;

(4) the sources liable for payments due under the

contract;

(5) the amount of deposit paid; and(6) the rights, duties and obligations of the

resident, except that the specification of a resident's rights may be furnished on a separate document which complies with the requirements of Section 2-211.

(h) The contract shall designate the name of the resident's representative, if any. The resident shall provide the facility with a copy of the written agreement between the resident and the resident's representative which authorizes the resident's representative to inspect and copy the resident's records and authorizes the resident's representative to execute the contract on behalf of the resident required by this Section.(i) The contract shall provide that if the resident is compelled by a change in physical or mental health to leave the facility, the contract and all obligations under it shall terminate on 7 days' notice. No prior notice of termination of the contract shall be required, however, in the case of a resident's death. The contract shall also provide that in all other situations, a resident may terminate the contract and all obligations under it with 30 days' notice. All charges shall be prorated as of the date on which the contract terminates, and, if any payments have been made in advance, the excess shall be refunded to the resident. This provision shall not apply to life care contracts through which a facility agrees to provide maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life nor to continuing care contracts through which a facility agrees to supplement all available forms of financial support in providing maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his or her life.(j) In addition to all other contract specifications contained in this Section admission contracts shall also specify:(1) whether the facility accepts Medicaid clients;(2) whether the facility requires a deposit of the

resident or his or her family prior to the establishment of Medicaid eligibility;

(3) in the event that a deposit is required, a clear

and concise statement of the procedure to be followed for the return of such deposit to the resident or the appropriate family member or guardian of the person;

(4) that all deposits made to a facility by a

resident, or on behalf of a resident, shall be returned by the facility within 30 days of the establishment of Medicaid eligibility, unless such deposits must be drawn upon or encumbered in accordance with Medicaid eligibility requirements established by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(k) It shall be a business offense for a facility to knowingly and intentionally both retain a resident's deposit and accept Medicaid payments on behalf of that resident. (Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-203) Sec. 2-203. Residents' advisory council. Each facility shall establish a residents' advisory council. The administrator shall designate a member of the facility staff to coordinate the establishment of, and render assistance to, the council.(a) The composition of the residents' advisory council shall be specified by Department regulation, but no employee or affiliate of a facility shall be a member of any council.(b) The council shall meet at least once each month with the staff coordinator who shall provide assistance to the council in preparing and disseminating a report of each meeting to all residents, the administrator, and the staff.(c) Records of the council meetings will be maintained in the office of the administrator.(d) The residents' advisory council may communicate to the administrator the opinions and concerns of the residents. The council shall review procedures for implementing resident rights, facility responsibilities and make recommendations for changes or additions which will strengthen the facility's policies and procedures as they affect residents' rights and facility responsibilities.(e) The council shall be a forum for:(1) Obtaining and disseminating information;(2) Soliciting and adopting recommendations for

facility programing and improvements;

(3) Early identification and for recommending orderly

resolution of problems.

(f) The council may present complaints as provided in Section 3-702 on behalf of a resident to the Department, the DD Facility Advisory Board established under Section 2-204 of this Act or to any other person it considers appropriate. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1146, eff. 7-21-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-204) Sec. 2-204. DD Facility Advisory Board. The Director shall appoint a DD Facility Advisory Board to consult with the Department and the residents' advisory councils created under Section 2-203.(a) The Advisory Board shall be composed of the following persons:(1) the Director who shall serve as chairperson, ex

officio, and nonvoting;

(2) one representative each of the Department of

Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Office of the State Fire Marshal, all nonvoting members;

(3) one member who shall be a physician licensed to

practice medicine in all its branches;

(4) one member who shall be a behavioral specialist

selected from the recommendations of the Department of Human Services;

(5) three members who shall be selected from the

recommendations by organizations whose membership consists of facilities;

(6) two members who shall represent the general

public who are not members of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and who have no responsibility for management or formation of policy or financial interest in a facility;

(7) one member who is a member of a residents'

advisory council established under Section 2-203 and is capable of actively participating on the Advisory Board; and

(8) one member who shall be selected from the

recommendations of consumer organizations that engage solely in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of residents and their immediate families.

(b) The Advisory Board shall meet as frequently as the chairperson deems necessary, but not less than 4 times each year. Upon request by 4 or more members, the chairperson shall call a meeting of the Advisory Board. The affirmative vote of 6 members of the Advisory Board shall be necessary for Advisory Board action. A member of the Advisory Board may designate a replacement to serve at the Advisory Board meeting and vote in place of the member by submitting a letter of designation to the chairperson prior to or at the Advisory Board meeting. The Advisory Board members shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.(c) The Advisory Board shall advise the Department of Public Health on all aspects of its responsibilities under this Act, including the format and content of any rules promulgated by the Department of Public Health. Any such rules, except emergency rules promulgated pursuant to Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, promulgated without obtaining the advice of the Advisory Board are null and void. If the Department fails to follow the advice of the Advisory Board, the Department shall, prior to the promulgation of such rules, transmit a written explanation of the reason therefor to the Advisory Board. During its review of rules, the Advisory Board shall analyze the economic and regulatory impact of those rules. If the Advisory Board, having been asked for its advice, fails to advise the Department within 90 days, the rules shall be considered acted upon. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1146, eff. 7-21-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-205) Sec. 2-205. Disclosure of information to public. The following information is subject to disclosure to the public from the Department or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services: (1) Information submitted under Sections 3-103 and

3-207 except information concerning the remuneration of personnel licensed, registered, or certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation (as successor to the Department of Professional Regulation) and monthly charges for an individual private resident;

(2) Records of license and certification inspections,

surveys, and evaluations of facilities, other reports of inspections, surveys, and evaluations of resident care, whether a facility is designated a distressed facility and the basis for the designation, and reports concerning a facility prepared pursuant to Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act, subject to the provisions of the Social Security Act;

(3) Cost and reimbursement reports submitted by a

facility under Section 3-208, reports of audits of facilities, and other public records concerning costs incurred by, revenues received by, and reimbursement of facilities; and

(4) Complaints filed against a facility and complaint

investigation reports, except that a complaint or complaint investigation report shall not be disclosed to a person other than the complainant or complainant's representative before it is disclosed to a facility under Section 3-702, and, further, except that a complainant or resident's name shall not be disclosed except under Section 3-702. The Department shall disclose information under this Section in accordance with provisions for inspection and copying of public records required by the Freedom of Information Act. However, the disclosure of information described in subsection (1) shall not be restricted by any provision of the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-206) Sec. 2-206. Confidentiality of records.(a) The Department shall respect the confidentiality of a resident's record and shall not divulge or disclose the contents of a record in a manner which identifies a resident, except upon a resident's death to a relative or guardian, or under judicial proceedings. This Section shall not be construed to limit the right of a resident to inspect or copy the resident's records.(b) Confidential medical, social, personal, or financial information identifying a resident shall not be available for public inspection in a manner which identifies a resident. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-207) Sec. 2-207. Directories for public health regions; information concerning facility costs and policies.(a) Each year the Department shall publish a Directory for each public health region listing facilities to be made available to the public and be available at all Department offices. The Department may charge a fee for the Directory. The Directory shall contain, at a minimum, the following information:(1) The name and address of the facility;(2) The number and type of licensed beds;(3) The name of the cooperating hospital, if any;(4) The name of the administrator;(5) The facility telephone number; and(6) Membership in a provider association and

accreditation by any such organization.

(b) Detailed information concerning basic costs for care and operating policies shall be available to the public upon request at each facility. However, a facility may refuse to make available any proprietary operating policies to the extent such facility reasonably believes such policies may be revealed to a competitor. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-208) Sec. 2-208. Notice of imminent death, unusual incident, abuse, or neglect. (a) A facility shall immediately notify the identified resident's next of kin, guardian, resident's representative, and physician of the resident's death or when the resident's death appears to be imminent. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of a resident's death within 24 hours after the resident's death. The facility shall notify the Department of the death of a facility's resident that does not occur in the facility immediately upon learning of the death. A facility shall promptly notify the coroner or medical examiner of a resident's death in a manner and form to be determined by the Department after consultation with the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the facility is located. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of the death of a resident within 72 hours after the death, including a report of any medication errors or other incidents that occurred within 30 days of the resident's death. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation.(b) A facility shall immediately notify the resident's next of kin, guardian, or resident representative of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect involving the resident. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect required to be reported pursuant to State law or administrative rule. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect within one day after the unusual incident, abuse, or neglect occurring. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation. For purposes of this Section, "unusual incident" means serious injury; unscheduled hospital visit for treatment of serious injury; 9-1-1 calls for emergency services directly relating to a resident threat; or stalking of staff or person served that raises health or safety concerns. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-209) Sec. 2-209. Number of residents. A facility shall admit only that number of residents for which it is licensed. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-210) Sec. 2-210. Policies and procedures. A facility shall establish written policies and procedures to implement the responsibilities and rights provided in this Article. The policies shall include the procedure for the investigation and resolution of resident complaints as set forth under Section 3-702. The policies and procedures shall be clear and unambiguous and shall be available for inspection by any person. A summary of the policies and procedures, printed in not less than 12-point type, shall be distributed to each resident and representative. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-211) Sec. 2-211. Explanation of rights. Each resident and resident's guardian or other person acting for the resident shall be given a written explanation, prepared by the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, of all the rights enumerated in Part 1 of this Article and in Part 4 of Article III. For residents of facilities participating in Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act, the explanation shall include an explanation of residents' rights enumerated in that Act. The explanation shall be given at the time of admission to a facility or as soon thereafter as the condition of the resident permits, but in no event later than 48 hours after admission, and again at least annually thereafter. At the time of the implementation of this Act each resident shall be given a written summary of all the rights enumerated in Part 1 of this Article.If a resident is unable to read such written explanation, it shall be read to the resident in a language the resident understands. In the case of a minor or a person having a guardian or other person acting for him or her, both the resident and the parent, guardian or other person acting for the resident shall be fully informed of these rights. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-212) Sec. 2-212. Staff familiarity with rights and responsibilities. The facility shall ensure that its staff is familiar with and observes the rights and responsibilities enumerated in this Article. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-213) Sec. 2-213. Vaccinations. (a) A facility shall annually administer or arrange for administration of a vaccination against influenza to each resident, in accordance with the recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention that are most recent to the time of vaccination, unless the vaccination is medically contraindicated or the resident has refused the vaccine. Influenza vaccinations for all residents age 65 and over shall be completed by November 30 of each year or as soon as practicable if vaccine supplies are not available before November 1. Residents admitted after November 30, during the flu season, and until February 1 shall, as medically appropriate, receive an influenza vaccination prior to or upon admission or as soon as practicable if vaccine supplies are not available at the time of the admission, unless the vaccine is medically contraindicated or the resident has refused the vaccine. In the event that the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention determines that dates of administration other than those stated in this Act are optimal to protect the health of residents, the Department is authorized to develop rules to mandate vaccinations at those times rather than the times stated in this Act. A facility shall document in the resident's medical record that an annual vaccination against influenza was administered, arranged, refused or medically contraindicated.(b) A facility shall administer or arrange for administration of a pneumococcal vaccination to each resident, in accordance with the recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, who has not received this immunization prior to or upon admission to the facility, unless the resident refuses the offer for vaccination or the vaccination is medically contraindicated. A facility shall document in each resident's medical record that a vaccination against pneumococcal pneumonia was offered and administered, arranged, refused, or medically contraindicated. (Source: P.A. 98-271, eff. 1-1-14.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-214) Sec. 2-214. Consumer Choice Information Reports. (a) Every facility shall complete a Consumer Choice Information Report and shall file it with the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman electronically as prescribed by the Office. The Report shall be filed annually and upon request of the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman. The Consumer Choice Information Report must be completed by the facility in full.(b) A violation of any of the provisions of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice under the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act. All remedies, penalties, and authority granted to the Attorney General by the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act shall be available to him or her for the enforcement of this Section.(c) The Department of Public Health shall include verification of the submission of a facility's current Consumer Choice Information Report when conducting an inspection pursuant to Section 3-212. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-216) Sec. 2-216. Notification of identified offenders. If identified offenders are residents of the licensed facility, the licensed facility shall notify every resident or resident's guardian in writing that such offenders are residents of the licensed facility. The licensed facility shall also provide notice to its employees and to visitors to the facility that identified offenders are residents. (Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-217) Sec. 2-217. Notification of violations. When the Department issues any notice pursuant to Section 3-119, 3-119.1, 3-301, 3-303, 3-307, or 3-702 of this Act or a notice of federal Medicaid certification deficiencies, the facility shall provide notification of the violations and deficiencies within 10 days after receiving a notice described within this Section to every resident and the resident's representative or guardian identified or referred to anywhere within the Department notice or the CMS 2567 as having received care or services that violated State or federal standards. The notification shall include a Department-prescribed notification letter as determined by rule and a copy of the notice and CMS 2567, if any, issued by the Department. A facility's failure to provide notification pursuant to this Section to a resident and the resident's representative or guardian, if any, shall constitute a Type "B" violation. (Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-218) Sec. 2-218. (Repealed). (Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11. Repealed by P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)